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Uniform Convergence of Functions

In this lesson you’ll see that a limit of continuous functions need not be continuous, learn the stronger notion - uniform convergence - that repairs this, and understand exactly which operations may be exchanged with a limit and which may not.

A sequence of functions can converge in more than one way, and the difference is not a technicality - it decides whether continuity, integrals, and derivatives survive the limit.

fnff_n \to f pointwise on SS if fn(x)f(x)f_n(x) \to f(x) for every xSx \in S.

Spelled out with quantifiers:

xS, ε>0, N such that nN    fn(x)f(x)<ε\forall x \in S,\ \forall \varepsilon>0,\ \exists N \text{ such that } n \ge N \implies |f_n(x)-f(x)|<\varepsilon

The NN sits after the xx, so it may depend on it. That is the entire weakness, and it is enough to destroy nearly everything.

fnff_n \to f uniformly on SS if for every ε>0\varepsilon>0 there is an NN such that nNn \ge N implies fn(x)f(x)<ε|f_n(x)-f(x)|<\varepsilon for all xSx \in S.

ε>0, N, nN, xS:fn(x)f(x)<ε\forall \varepsilon>0,\ \exists N,\ \forall n\ge N,\ \forall x \in S: |f_n(x)-f(x)|<\varepsilon

Same symbols, one quantifier moved. Now NN is chosen before xx is seen, so a single index works across the whole set. Uniform convergence implies pointwise convergence; the converse fails.

Equivalently, in terms of the supremum norm,

fnf    fnf=supxSfn(x)f(x)0f_n \rightrightarrows f \iff \|f_n - f\| = \sup_{x\in S}|f_n(x)-f(x)| \to 0

That reformulation turns a statement about functions into a statement about a single sequence of numbers, which is usually the easiest way to check it.

Geometrically: draw a band of half-width ε\varepsilon around the graph of ff. Uniform convergence says that from some index on, the entire graph of fnf_n lies inside the band. Pointwise convergence only says each individual point eventually gets in, and points may enter at wildly different times.

On [0,1][0,1] let fn(x)=xnf_n(x)=x^n. Then

fn(x)f(x)={00x<11x=1f_n(x) \to f(x) = \begin{cases}0 & 0\le x<1\\ 1 & x=1\end{cases}

Every fnf_n is continuous. The limit is not. So pointwise limits of continuous functions need not be continuous, and this single example is why the whole lesson exists.

The convergence is not uniform, because

fnf=sup0x<1xn=1for every n\|f_n-f\| = \sup_{0\le x<1}x^n = 1 \quad \text{for every } n

The supremum is never attained, but it is 1 regardless of nn: the graph always has a stretch climbing from near 0 to near 1, and that stretch just slides right without flattening.

On [0,0.9][0, 0.9], by contrast, fnf=0.9n0\|f_n-f\| = 0.9^n \to 0, so the convergence is uniform there. Uniformity is a property of the sequence together with the set, and shrinking the set can create it.

Continuity. If each fnf_n is continuous on SS and fnff_n \rightrightarrows f, then ff is continuous.

Proof. Fix cc and ε>0\varepsilon>0. Pick nn with fnf<ε/3\|f_n-f\|<\varepsilon/3. Pick δ\delta from continuity of that single fnf_n at cc, so fn(x)fn(c)<ε/3|f_n(x)-f_n(c)|<\varepsilon/3 for xc<δ|x-c|<\delta. Then

f(x)f(c)f(x)fn(x)+fn(x)fn(c)+fn(c)f(c)<ε|f(x)-f(c)| \le |f(x)-f_n(x)|+|f_n(x)-f_n(c)|+|f_n(c)-f(c)| < \varepsilon

The three-epsilon argument. Two of the three pieces are controlled by uniformity and one by continuity of a fixed member of the sequence. Note that the middle term needs fn(x)fn(c)|f_n(x)-f_n(c)| small for the same nn at both points, which is exactly what pointwise convergence cannot deliver.

An equivalent phrasing of the same theorem is that limits may be interchanged:

limxclimnfn(x)=limnlimxcfn(x)\lim_{x\to c}\lim_{n\to\infty}f_n(x) = \lim_{n\to\infty}\lim_{x\to c}f_n(x)

Interchanging two limits is the recurring theme of this lesson, and uniformity is the usual licence to do it.

Integrals. If each fnf_n is integrable on [a,b][a,b] and fnff_n \rightrightarrows f, then ff is integrable and

abfnabf\int_a^b f_n \to \int_a^b f

Reason. fnffnffnf(ba)0\left|\int f_n - \int f\right| \le \int|f_n-f| \le \|f_n-f\|(b-a) \to 0. One line, and the (ba)(b-a) shows why a bounded interval matters.

Pointwise convergence is not enough. Let fnf_n be a spike of height nn and width 1/n1/n near 0, and 0 elsewhere. Then fn0f_n \to 0 pointwise, but 01fn=1\int_0^1 f_n = 1 for every nn. The limit of the integrals is 1, the integral of the limit is 0.

What uniform convergence does not preserve

Section titled “What uniform convergence does not preserve”

Derivatives. This is the important asymmetry.

Let fn(x)=sin(nx)nf_n(x)=\frac{\sin(nx)}{\sqrt{n}}. Then fn=1/n0\|f_n\| = 1/\sqrt{n}\to0, so fn0f_n \rightrightarrows 0 uniformly. But

fn(x)=ncos(nx)f_n'(x)=\sqrt{n}\cos(nx)

which is unbounded and converges to nothing. Uniform convergence of fnf_n says nothing about fnf_n'.

The reason is structural: integration averages and therefore smooths, while differentiation amplifies fine detail, and uniform closeness of the graphs is a statement about values, not slopes.

The correct theorem runs the other way round:

If fnff_n \to f pointwise on [a,b][a,b], each fnf_n' is continuous, and fngf_n' \rightrightarrows g uniformly, then ff is differentiable and f=gf'=g.

The hypothesis is uniform convergence of the derivatives, and then the conclusion about ff follows. It only needs fnf_n to converge at a single point, in fact, with the rest supplied by the fundamental theorem.

For un(x)\sum u_n(x), uniform convergence means the partial sums converge uniformly. The workhorse test:

Weierstrass M-test. If un(x)Mn|u_n(x)| \le M_n for all xSx \in S and Mn\sum M_n converges, then un\sum u_n converges uniformly on SS.

The bound MnM_n must not depend on xx, which is where the uniformity comes from. For example sin(nx)n2\sum \frac{\sin(nx)}{n^2} converges uniformly on R\mathbb{R} because sin(nx)/n21/n2|\sin(nx)/n^2| \le 1/n^2 and 1/n2\sum 1/n^2 converges.

This is what makes power series well behaved: inside the radius of convergence they converge uniformly on every closed subinterval, so they may be differentiated and integrated term by term. That is the justification for every term-by-term manipulation of Taylor series you performed in calculus.

Just as with sequences of numbers, you can detect uniform convergence without knowing the limit:

fnf_n converges uniformly on SS if and only if for every ε>0\varepsilon>0 there is NN with fnfm<ε\|f_n - f_m\| < \varepsilon for all n,mNn,m \ge N.

This is completeness once more, now for the space of bounded functions under the supremum norm. Uniform convergence is precisely convergence in that norm, which is why the theory looks so much like the sequence theory from earlier in the section.

Example 1: Show xnx^n does not converge uniformly on [0,1][0,1].

Solution. The pointwise limit ff is 0 on [0,1)[0,1) and 1 at 1.

fnfsup0x<1xn0=1\|f_n - f\| \ge \sup_{0\le x<1}|x^n - 0| = 1

since xn1x^n \to 1 as x1x \to 1^-. The supremum norm is 1 for every nn, so it does not go to 0. Not uniform.

Alternatively, cite the theorem: each fnf_n is continuous, the limit is not, so the convergence cannot be uniform. That argument is shorter and generalizes.

Example 2: Same functions, smaller set.

Show xn0x^n \rightrightarrows 0 on [0,a][0,a] for any fixed a<1a<1.

Solution. On [0,a][0,a] the limit is 0 everywhere, and

fn0=sup0xaxn=an0\|f_n - 0\| = \sup_{0\le x\le a}x^n = a^n \to 0

since 0a<10\le a<1. Uniform.

Uniformity depends on the set. The failure at x=1x=1 is entirely local, and excluding any neighbourhood of it fixes the problem.

Example 3: Uniform convergence with a non-obvious supremum.

Let fn(x)=nx1+n2x2f_n(x)=\frac{nx}{1+n^2x^2} on [0,)[0,\infty). Is the convergence uniform?

Solution. For fixed x>0x>0, the numerator grows like nn and the denominator like n2n^2, so fn(x)0f_n(x)\to0; and fn(0)=0f_n(0)=0. The pointwise limit is 0.

Find the supremum by calculus: setting the derivative to zero gives x=1/nx=1/n, where

fn(1/n)=11+1=12f_n(1/n)=\frac{1}{1+1}=\frac12

So fn=12\|f_n\|=\frac12 for every nn. Not uniform, even though every fnf_n and the limit are continuous.

Continuity of the limit does not imply uniformity. The theorem is one-directional: uniform plus continuous gives continuous, not the reverse.

Example 4: The spike, and why integrals need uniformity.

Let fnf_n be the triangular spike of height nn on [0,2/n][0, 2/n], peaking at 1/n1/n, and 0 afterwards. Compare limfn\lim\int f_n with limfn\int\lim f_n.

Solution. For any fixed x>0x>0, once n>2/xn>2/x the spike has passed and fn(x)=0f_n(x)=0; also fn(0)=0f_n(0)=0. So fn0f_n \to 0 pointwise.

Each integral is the triangle’s area:

01fn=122nn=1\int_0^1 f_n = \tfrac12 \cdot \tfrac{2}{n}\cdot n = 1

So limnfn=1\lim_n \int f_n = 1 while limnfn=0\int \lim_n f_n = 0.

The two operations do not commute here, and the reason is that fn0=n\|f_n - 0\| = n \to \infty, the opposite of uniform.

Example 5: Uniform convergence without convergence of derivatives.

Let fn(x)=sin(nx)nf_n(x)=\frac{\sin(nx)}{\sqrt n} on R\mathbb{R}.

Solution. fn0=1n0\|f_n - 0\| = \frac{1}{\sqrt n}\to0, so fn0f_n \rightrightarrows 0.

But fn(x)=ncos(nx)f_n'(x)=\sqrt n\cos(nx), and at x=0x=0 this is n\sqrt n \to \infty. The derivatives diverge.

Uniform convergence of the functions gives nothing about the derivatives. The graphs get flat in amplitude while oscillating ever faster, so slopes blow up.

Example 6: Apply the M-test.

Show n=1cos(nx)n2\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\cos(nx)}{n^2} converges uniformly on R\mathbb{R}.

Solution. For every real xx,

cos(nx)n21n2=Mn\left|\frac{\cos(nx)}{n^2}\right| \le \frac{1}{n^2} = M_n

and 1/n2\sum 1/n^2 converges as a pp-series with p=2>1p=2>1. By the M-test the series converges uniformly on all of R\mathbb{R}. ∎

Consequently the sum is a continuous function of xx, and it may be integrated term by term over any bounded interval. Note that term-by-term differentiation is not licensed here: the differentiated series has terms sin(nx)/n-\sin(nx)/n, and 1/n\sum 1/n diverges.

Example 7: Term-by-term integration.

Use 11x=n=0xn\frac{1}{1-x}=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}x^n to obtain a series for ln(1x)-\ln(1-x) on x<1|x|<1.

Solution. On [a,a][-a,a] with a<1a<1, the M-test with Mn=anM_n=a^n gives uniform convergence. So integration from 0 to xx may be done term by term:

ln(1x)=0xdt1t=n=0xn+1n+1=k=1xkk-\ln(1-x)=\int_0^x\frac{dt}{1-t}=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^{n+1}}{n+1}=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{x^k}{k}

Every term-by-term manipulation of a power series is an appeal to uniform convergence on a closed subinterval, which is why the operation is safe strictly inside the radius and needs separate care at the endpoints.

Fourier series. Whether a Fourier series converges to the function, and in what sense, is the founding question of this whole circle of ideas. The Gibbs phenomenon near a jump is non-uniform convergence made visible: the overshoot shrinks in width but not in height.

Numerical analysis. A method that converges pointwise but not uniformly can be badly wrong on part of the domain at every step. Error bounds are quoted in the supremum norm precisely because that is the uniform notion.

Machine learning. Uniform convergence of empirical averages to true expectations over a class of functions is the central object of statistical learning theory; it is what turns “low training error” into “low true error”.

Signal processing. Reconstructing a signal from finitely many terms is a question about uniform approximation, and the ringing artefacts near sharp edges in images and audio are the same non-uniformity as Gibbs.

PDE solutions. Solutions are frequently built as series or as limits of approximations, and uniform convergence is what allows the limit to be differentiated and to satisfy the equation. Without it the limit may exist and solve nothing.

Numerical integration and simulation. Interchanging a limit with an integral is the routine step in Monte Carlo estimates and in convergence proofs for numerical schemes. The spike example is the standing warning about doing it unjustified.

What is the difference between pointwise and uniform convergence?
For fₙ(x) = xⁿ on [0, 1], what is ‖fₙ − f‖ where f is the pointwise limit?
What does xⁿ on [0, 1] demonstrate?
In the proof that a uniform limit of continuous functions is continuous, how is ε split?
Which operation does uniform convergence NOT justify interchanging with the limit?
A spike of height n and width 1/n near 0 converges pointwise to 0, yet its integral is 1 for every n. What does this show?
What does the Weierstrass M-test require?
For fₙ(x) = nx/(1 + n²x²) on [0, ∞), the pointwise limit is 0 and every function is continuous. Is the convergence uniform?